9/7/17
So this is going to a bit different than what I have done before. I am wanting to tackle the Essays on the church website. This will be a trial run. Who knows, if it goes well and I enjoy it, I may go through all of them. So, here is the plan, I am going to copy the essay word for word, then interject throughout. I want to pay special attention to footnotes. So, the text of the Essay will be in blue, with my comments and notes found in the footnotes will be in green (for those who are color blind, I am sorry, the background of this blog setup doesn’t really allow for anything that much better). Something else I should note, sources will still be linked, but they won’t be the normal blue when they are found in my comments section. Instead, they will just have the underlined portion. As far as I can currently see, the formatting looks to be holding true of when I originally typed it up. If you happen to find any errors, please let me know in the comments, or via reddit @ https://www.reddit.com/r/exmormon/comments/6ypcvr/my_latest_blog_post_tearing_into_the_churches/
The first Essay that I want to dive into is, “Plural
Marriage in The Church of Jesus Christ of Latter-day Saints.” Here we go.
Latter-day Saints believe that
the marriage of one man and one woman is the Lord’s standing law of marriage.
In biblical times, the Lord commanded some to practice plural marriage—the
marriage of one man and more than one woman.1
Our first footnote. Here it
lists the following: Doctrine and Covenants 132:34–38; Jacob
2:30; see also Genesis 16. So, the essay says that the lord
has commanded some to practice pleural marriage. Let’s look at the sources.
D&C 132: Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob of the bible “received concubines … they were given unto him, and he abode in my law.”
It also talks about David and Solomon having many wives and concubines, and
that this was all good until there was the Uriah and his wife with David. OK, that source fits, other than the fact that
it was written by Joseph Smith, not by those prophets of old. All of these
prophets of old were allowed to have, and did not sin in having multiple wives
and concubines, except for when David ended up hooking up with another man’s
wife. At least that is what this scripture says, what about the rest?
Now, Jacob: verse 30- says
NOTHING about marriage! “For if I will,
saith the Lord of Hosts, raise up seed unto me, I will command my people;
otherwise they shall hearken unto these things.” But it sure does in verse
24: “Behold, David and Solomon truly had
many wives and concubines, which thing was abominable before me, saith the Lord.”
Wait! Isn’t that the EXACT opposite of what we just found in the D&C?!?!
Yes, it sure is. So why would the church give this reference to explain pleural
marriage? It literally says the exact opposite of what they are trying to point
out. Sounds like a REALLY bad source to get to your stated conclusion.
Genesis 16 - Nowhere does it say
that the Lord commanded Abraham to take Hagar as his wife. The closest we get
to this is when an angel appears to Hagar after she fled. 16:9-10 "And the angel of the Lord said unto her,
Return to thy mistress, and submit thyself under her hands. And the angel of
the Lord said under her, I will multiply thy seed exceedingly, that it shall
not be numbered for multitude." This does not show that the Lord either
condoned plural marriage, or commanded it. Hagar was already pregnant with
Ishmael at this time and she was being commanded to go back. There is no record
of any other children born of Hagar.
So,
of the 3 scriptures listed as sources, only 1 of them states anything close to
what they are trying to say in the Essay. And that source is from the D&C,
which I would not consider a great source to talk about Old Testament times.
Back to the Essay.
By revelation, the Lord
commanded Joseph Smith to institute the practice of plural marriage among
Church members in the early 1840s. For more than half a century, plural
marriage was practiced by some Latter-day Saints under the direction of the
Church President.2
Footnote 2: The text of this
footnote contradicts the scripture referenced again. The note on the footnote
says “Doctrine and Covenants 132:7. The Church President periodically set apart
others to perform plural marriages.” So when reading 132:7 we should find it saying something to
state that was the case right? Let’s take a look:
“And verily I say unto you, that the conditions of this law are these:
All covenants, contracts, bonds, obligations, oaths, vows, performances,
connections, associations, or expectations, that are not made and entered into
and sealed by the Holy Spirit of promise, of him who is anointed, both as well
for time and for all eternity, and that too most holy, by revelation and
commandment through the medium of mine anointed, whom I have appointed on the
earth to hold this power (and I have appointed unto my servant Joseph to hold
this power in the last days, and there is never but one on the earth at a time
on whom this power and the keys of this priesthood are conferred), are of no
efficacy, virtue, or force in and after the resurrection from the dead; for all
contracts that are not made unto this end have an end when men are dead.”
132:7 explicitly states that “there
is but one on the earth at a time on whom this power and the keys of this priesthood
are conferred.” Why would the essay hide the truth (that other church leaders
outside of the President approved plural marriage) in the footnote that links
to a scripture that argues against the truth that was buried? It doesn’t seem
like they thought many people would dig into the footnotes now does it?
Something else that I want to
bring up at this point. Whenever they currently teach about the “New and everlasting
covenant” they ALWAYS refer to it being about temple marriage and the sealing
powers. But here in D&C 132:4, where we first hear of the “New
and everlasting covenant”, we find out that it has nothing to do with the
sealing power and refers to pleural marriage.
Latter-day Saints do not
understand all of God’s purposes in instituting, through His prophets, the
practice of plural marriage. The Book of Mormon identifies one reason for God
to command it: to increase the number of children born in the gospel covenant
in order to “raise up seed unto [the Lord].”3
Footnote 3 says to look at Jacob
2:30. But wait, haven’t we already looked there and found that it
says nothing about marriage? Yes, yes we have. So, it dose talk about “raising
up seed,” what else does it say?
“30 For if I will, saith the Lord of Hosts, raise up seed unto me, I
will command my people; otherwise they shall hearken unto these things.
31 For behold, I, the Lord, have seen the sorrow, and
heard the mourning of the daughters of my people in the land of Jerusalem, yea,
and in all the lands of my people, because of the wickedness and abominations
of their husbands.
32 And I will not suffer, saith the Lord of Hosts, that
the cries of the fair daughters of this people, which I have led out of the
land of Jerusalem, shall come up unto me against the men of my people, saith
the Lord of Hosts.”
It is saying that the men in
that time were screwing up by having multiple wives and concubines! It is
saying that the Lord of Hosts will come against the men of his people and then
replace them with those who are will no cause sorrow among the Lords daughters!
IT IS LITTERALLY SAYING THE EXACT OPPOSITE OF WHAT THEY CLAIM IN THE ESSAY! I
am livid here! They are picking and choosing key lines out of the scriptures to
fit what they want. This chapter in Jacob says that it is ABOMINABLE to have
multiple wives (verse 24)! Yet they are finding 5 words that
are in the right order to try and prove the EXACT OPPOSITE point! This is
downright offensive that they are claiming this crap.
Plural marriage did result in
the birth of large numbers of children within faithful Latter-day Saint homes.
It also shaped 19th-century Mormon society in many ways: marriage
became available to virtually all who desired it; per-capita inequality of
wealth was diminished as economically disadvantaged women married into more
financially stable households; and ethnic intermarriages were increased*, which
helped to unite a diverse immigrant population. Plural marriage also helped
create and strengthen a sense of cohesion and group identification among
Latter-day Saints. Church members came to see themselves as a “peculiar
people,” covenant-bound to carry out the commands of God despite outside
opposition.4
I will get to Footnote 4 in a
minute, first I want to address the * I placed in that paragraph. “Ethnic
intermarriages were increased.” WHAT??? That sounds dangerous given what
Brigham Young was teaching at that time period.
“Shall
I tell you the law of God in regard to the African race? If the white man
belongs to the chosen seed mixes his blood with the seed of Cain, the penalty,
under the law of God, is death on the spot. This will always be so.” (Brigham Young, Journal of Discourses, vol.10, p.110).
If there really were an increases in these Ethnic intermarriages, there would
surely be an increase in people dropping “dead on the spot” then too.
So, I
find it very hard to believe that there was any sort of increase in “Ethnic
intermarriages” under teachings like that. Obviously this statement is full of
crap, but still, if that is what your leader is telling you, do you really
think a guy looking for another wife to add to his harem would go for an
“ethnic” woman?
Footnote 4: The 3 scriptures
referenced in the footnote are: 1 Peter 2:9, Jacob 1:8, and Acts 5:41
1 Peter 2:9 “But ye
are a chosen generation, a royal priesthood, an holy nation, a peculiar people;
that ye should shew forth the praises of him who hath called you out of
darkness into his marvellous light:”
The people Peter were talking
about were peculiar in their belief in Christ. The early Saints were most
definitely peculiar WITHOUT plural marriage. A new book of scripture? A modern
day prophet? You can stop there and consider the Saints peculiar. Those core
beliefs to the restoration should be more than enough to "help create and
strengthen a sense of cohesion and group identification".
While reading this scripture in
Peter, if you continue on just a bit you come across another very interesting
bit of information. In 1 Peter 2:13-14 we read, "Submit yourselves to every ordinance of man
for the Lord's sake: whether it be to the king, as supreme; or unto governors,
as unto them that are sent by him for the punishment of evildoers, and for the
praise of them that do well". So this falls in line with what we know
as the Article of Faith number 12. Long story short,
we believe in following the law. Of course, it should be noted that plural marriage
was made illegal in Illinois in 1833. (Here's a PDF of "The Revised Law of Illinois"
published in 1833. Read page 198) Of course Joseph and others kept
it so quiet. It was illegal.
Ok, next scripture is Jacob 1:8. “Wherefore, we would to God that we could persuade all men not to rebel
against God, to provoke him to anger, but that all men would believe in Christ,
and view his death, and suffer his cross and bear the shame of the world;
wherefore, I, Jacob, take it upon me to fulfil the commandment of my brother
Nephi.”
OK, so here is the leap that I
think they are trying to make here is that we should not “rebel against God”
and just do what he says and have multiple wives. Yet again, this is contrary
to what is taught (look again at Jacob 2:30) as well as being against the law,
yet we claim that we should be a law abiding people. So this “reference” is
worthless, next.
Acts 5:41 “And
they departed from the presence of the council, rejoicing that they were
counted worthy to suffer shame for his name.”
Peter and John were arrested for
testifying of Christ. We read in 5:40 (the verse before the footnote reference),
“…when they had called the apostles, and
beaten them, they commanded that they should not speak in the name of Jesus,
and let them go.” The “shame” they suffered was being arrested and the
beaten for teaching and preaching of Christ. I guess that this fits as the
reference from the essay to, “carry out the commands of God despite outside
opposition.”
The Beginnings of Plural
Marriage in the Church
Polygamy had been permitted for
millennia in many cultures and religions, but, with few exceptions, it was
rejected in Western cultures. In Joseph Smith’s time, monogamy was the only
legal form of marriage in the United States.
Again we come up against the
issue of it being illegal to have multiple wives. It just said so, right in the
essay! So how can Joseph Smith write the Articles of Faith that clearly state
we should be, “… obeying, honoring, and sustaining the law”
while he himself is not???
The revelation on plural
marriage, recorded in Doctrine and Covenants 132, emerged partly from Joseph
Smith’s study of the Old Testament in 1831. Latter-day Saints understood that
they were living in the latter days, in what the revelations called the
“dispensation of the fulness of times.”5
The 3 scriptures referenced in
footnote 5 are D&C 112:30, D&C 124:41 and D&C 128:18.
All 3 scriptures mention the
"dispensation of fulness of times." As part of this dispensation,
ancient principles would be restored to the earth. The next section and
footnote aim to show that plural marriage is one of these principles that needed
to be restored, so let’s go there, since this is pointless.
Ancient principles—such as
prophets, priesthood, and temples—would be restored to the earth. Plural
marriage, practiced by ancient patriarchs like Abraham, Isaac, Jacob, and
Moses, was one of those ancient principles.6
Alright, now we are finally
talking about prophets of old who practiced and taught about pleural marriage,
thus making it a principle of the gospel that was practiced back in their
day(s) and thus being brought back. Wait, the only scripture listed is D&C 132: 1, 34-38 are referenced.
Verse 1- “Verily,
thus saith the Lord unto you my servant Joseph, that inasmuch as you have
inquired of my hand to know and understand wherein I, the Lord, justified my
servants Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob, as also Moses, David and Solomon, my
servants, as touching the principle and doctrine of their having many wives and
concubines—“
OK, essay says Abraham, Isaac,
Jacob, and Moses, D&C covers all of those, while adding David and Solomon.
Something that should have probably been brought up by now, these guys were all
Old Testament times, like, Law of Moses. So it only seems logical to look that
direction for instruction as to what was the law for them.
So, what does the Mosaic Law say
about plural marriage? Deuteronomy 17:17- "Neither shall he multiply wives to himself, that his heart turn not
away: neither shall he greatly multiply to himself silver and gold.”
I don’t know about you, but this
seems rather clear to me. The law these prophets of old were to follow
commanded them NOT to have many wives.
Just for the fun of it, let’s do
just a bit of digging on each of these guys.
Abraham: Already discussed above
from Genesis 16, recap- nothing about a commandment from God, or saying that
having multiple wives was a good thing.
Isaac: So, I am having a really
hard time finding any record that Isaac had any wife beyond Rebekah. Similar to
Abraham and Sarah, Rebekah was barren. But Isaac didn't take another wife. Genesis 25:21 says, "And Isaac entreated the Lord for his wife, because she was barren: and
the Lord was entreated of him, and Rebekah his wife conceived.” So another
wife wasn’t needed, he got his lineage through his first (and only) wife.
Jacob: Anyone who knows the
story of Jacob knows that his “love life” was “messed up” to say the least. If
you want to read it all, here you go, Genesis 29, otherwise I’ll try and sum it up.
So, Jacob falls for Rachel. The deal he strikes with her father Laban is that he
will serve Laban for seven years to marry her. He works his seven years. At the
end of the seven years, there is a marriage. Long story short Laban tricked
Jacob and gave him his elder daughter, Leah. Jacob, maybe not being the
brightest guy, didn't realize it wasn't Rachel until the morning (you know,
after the honeymoon night). So he went back to Laban and basically says, “What
the crap dude? We had a deal?! To which Laban replies that his eldest daughter
had to be married first (stupid old tradition that bit Jacob in the butt).
Jacob could marry Rachel as well, but he would have to work another seven years
to do so. Jacob is REALLY into Rachel, so he agrees. Laban must have figured it
was a low blow to trick Jacob into taking Leah, so he lets Jacob marry her
early, but still has to work the 7 years (dessert first this time). OK, Jacob
has some sons with Leah, Rachel starts getting nervous that she hasn't had any
kids yet (Gen 30:1). Jacob gets ticked at Rachel about
that as well (Gen. 30:2). Rachel takes a page out of Jacob's
grandma's book and tells him to take her handmaid Bilhah to have son kids (Gen 30:4). Not to be outdone, Leah gives Jacob
her handmaid Zilpah to have some kids; and she does. Rachel finally gets
pregnant herself, and has Joseph, at which time Jacob goes to Laban and asks
him permission to leave his services.
OK, why did I just walk through
that whole story? For one, I find it to be classic, messed up Old Testament
teaching. But the main purpose is to show the complete lack of a commandment
from God to take multiple wives. Jacob was initially duped by his father in law
to take both of his daughters as wives, then the daughters gave their handmaids
to him. God never gave him any extra wives, nor did he state he was pleased, and
most of all, he never commanded Jacob to take multiple wives.
Moses: Moses married Zipporah (Exodus
2). Much later, like when Moses was 80 years old, we find in Numbers 12:1-2 that Aaron and Miriam are
ticked that Moses took another wife, "And
Miriam and Aaron spake against Moses because of the Ethiopian woman whom he had
married: for he had married an Ethiopian woman." Now, it should be
said that we don't know if Zipporah was alive at this time. But even if she still
is, there is nothing saying that God commanded Moses to marry another woman. It
does say that God gets mad at Aaron and Miriam for speaking against Moses (it
should be noted that some biblical scholars believe this is a racial issue, not
the fact that he has another wife), and God wasn't happy that they objected due
to where she was from (being the lineage of Cain).
David & Solomon: 1 Kings 11:1-4, “But king Solomon loved many strange women, together with the daughter
of Pharaoh, women of the Moabites, Ammonites, Edomites, Zidonians, and
Hittites; 2 Of the nations concerning which the Lord said unto the children of
Israel, Ye shall not go in to them, neither shall they come in unto you: for
surely they will turn away your heart after their gods: Solomon clave unto
these in love. 3 And he had seven hundred wives, princesses, and three hundred
concubines: and his wives turned away his heart. 4 For it came to pass, when
Solomon was old, that his wives turned away his heart after other gods: and his
heart was not perfect with the Lord his God, as was the heart of David his
father.” OK, again, it doesn’t say anything about God commanding the multiple
wives. It even says in verse 6, “And
Solomon did evil in the sight of the Lord, and went not fully after the Lord,
as did David his father.” So it seems that this was a bad thing according
to God. So, another prophet of old, this time in trouble for having multiple
wives, definitely not being commanded by God to do it.
So there you have it. D&C
132:1 points to Abraham, Isaac, Jacob, David and Solomon as examples of the
principle and doctrine of plural marriage, but NONE of them show that God
commanded it. In Isaac's case, he never had another wife that we have record of.
In David and Solomon's case, their plural marriages were actually condemned by
God in the Old Testament.
Ok, back to the footnote, D&C 132: 34-38: “34 God commanded Abraham, and Sarah gave Hagar to Abraham to wife. And
why did she do it? Because this was the law; and from Hagar sprang many people.
This, therefore, was fulfilling, among other things, the promises.
35 Was Abraham, therefore, under condemnation? Verily I say unto you, Nay; for
I, the Lord, commanded it.
36 Abraham was commanded to offer his son Isaac; nevertheless, it was written:
Thou shalt not kill. Abraham, however, did not refuse, and it was accounted
unto him for righteousness.
37 Abraham received concubines, and they bore him children; and it was accounted
unto him for righteousness, because they were given unto him, and he abode in
my law; as Isaac also and Jacob did none other things than that which they were
commanded; and because they did none other things than that which they were
commanded, they have entered into their exaltation, according to the promises,
and sit upon thrones, and are not angels but are gods.
38 David also received many wives and concubines, and also Solomon and Moses my
servants, as also many others of my servants, from the beginning of creation
until this time; and in nothing did they sin save in those things which they
received not of me.”
We just got done looking at all of these prophets in the Bible, none of what
Joseph claims here appears in the Bible. There doesn’t appear to be any
recording of God having commanded, or allowed plural marriage, but instead
there are a few places where he instead, condemns it.
The same revelation that taught
of plural marriage was embedded within a revelation about eternal marriage—the
teaching that marriage could last beyond death. Monogamous and plural marriages
performed by priesthood power could seal loved ones to each other for eternity,
on condition of righteousness.7
Footnote 7 references D&C
132:7 and 131:2-3. We've already talked about 132:7 previously, so let’s skip that.
D&C 131:2-3 seems to only cause more
troubles than it does comfort, for me at least. 2 And in order to obtain the highest, a man must enter into this order
of the priesthood [meaning the new and everlasting covenant of marriage];
3 And if he does not, he cannot obtain it.”
The issue here, in D&C 132:4 we read that this, “new and
everlasting covenant” is pleural marriage. But that sure isn’t what they teach
today. Today they say that this “new and everlasting covenant is temple
marriage. But that sure was not the case back then.
Just for the fun of it, let’s
check out this quote by Brigham Young about plural marriage: "The
only men who become Gods, even the Sons of God, are those who enter into
polygamy. Others attain unto a glory and may even be permitted to come into the
presence of the Father and the Son; but they cannot reign as kings in glory,
because they had blessings offered unto them, and they refused to accept
them."
This sure makes it look that if you want to be the top of the Celestial
Kingdom, you better be polygamous. So with that said, I guess we can move on.
The revelation on marriage
stated general principles; it did not explain how to implement plural marriage
in all its particulars. In Nauvoo, Joseph Smith married additional wives and
authorized other Latter-day Saints to practice plural marriage. The practice
was introduced carefully and incrementally, and participants vowed to keep
their participation confidential, anticipating a time when husbands and wives
could acknowledge one another publicly.
Joseph Smith was married to Fanny Alger in 1833. The sealing
power was delivered in April of 1836. And of course D&C 132, with
the rules and orders to live this way, was recorded in 1843. Now, it does say in the chapter heading that there was, “evidence indicates that some of the
principles involved in this revelation were known by the Prophet as early as
1831.” So what was the point of plural marriage? If it was for raising up
seed, Joseph Smith failed, since we have no record of children with any of his
40+ wives, other than Emma. If it was to seal families together, why was Joseph
marrying other women prior to the sealing power being back on the Earth? There
is a lot not answered; besides the fact that Joseph lied during his lifetime, saying that he only
had one wife.
Plural Marriage and Families in
19th-Century Utah
Between 1852 and 1890,
Latter-day Saints openly practiced plural marriage. Most plural families lived
in Utah. Women and men who lived within plural marriage attested to challenges
and difficulties but also to the love and joy they found within their families.
They believed it was a commandment of God at that time and that obedience would
bring great blessings to them and their posterity. Church leaders taught that
participants in plural marriages should seek to develop a generous spirit of
unselfishness and the pure love of Christ for everyone involved.
Again, just want to point out
that Polygamy is against the law at this time. But, in 1847, the area that
became Utah was part of the Mexican territory that didn’t become part of the
United States until 1852.
Although some leaders had large
polygamous families, two-thirds of polygamist men had only two wives at a time.
Church leaders recognized that plural marriages could be particularly difficult
for women. Divorce was therefore available to women who were unhappy in their
marriages; remarriage was also readily available. Women sometimes married at
young ages in the first decade of Utah settlement, which was typical of women
living in frontier areas at the time. At its peak in 1857, perhaps one half of
all Utah Latter-day Saints experienced plural marriage as a husband, wife, or
child. The percentage of those involved in plural marriage steadily declined
over the next three decades.
This just sounds a bit crazy by
itself. Why did it seem that the leaders (all male leadership mind you) seem to
have the “large polygamous families”? If it was truly a commandment, and the
only way for men to become Gods, then why would any man not have multiple
wives?
During the years that plural marriage
was publicly taught, not all Latter-day Saints were expected to live the
principle, though all were expected to accept it as a revelation from God.
Indeed, this system of marriage could not have been universal due to the ratio
of men to women. Women were free to choose their spouses, whether to enter into
a polygamous or a monogamous union, or whether to marry at all. Some men
entered plural marriage because they were asked to do so by Church leaders,
while others initiated the process themselves; all were required to obtain the
approval of Church leaders before entering a plural marriage.
Again, per Brigham Young: "The only men who become
Gods, even the Sons of God, are those who enter into polygamy. Others attain
unto a glory and may even be permitted to come into the presence of the Father
and the Son; but they cannot reign as kings in glory, because they had
blessings offered unto them, and they refused to accept them." If this is
what was taught, then how can the Essay say that not all the saints were
expected to live it? They only had to live it if they wanted to attain the highest
place of glory in the life after this.
Anti-polygamy Legislation and
the End of Plural Marriage
Beginning in 1862, the U.S.
government passed laws against the practice of plural marriage. After the U.S.
Supreme Court found the anti-polygamy laws to be constitutional in 1879,
federal officials began prosecuting polygamous husbands and wives during the
1880s. Believing these laws to be unjust, Latter-day Saints engaged in civil
disobedience by continuing to practice plural marriage and by attempting to
avoid arrest by moving to the homes of friends or family or by hiding under assumed
names. When convicted, they paid fines and submitted to jail time.
OK, state law of Illinois says
that it was illegal, so what to the saints do? That’s right, ignore it. They do
keep it on the down-low so that they don’t have all of their learders getting
carried off to jail, but they just ignore the law. Why would we think anything
different would happen if it were now a federal law? But wait, don’t we believe
in the institution of government? And also that we should follow the laws of
that government? Article of Faith number 12, written by
Joseph Smith says, “We believe in being
subject to kings, presidents, rulers, and magistrates, in obeying, honoring,
and sustaining the law.” Again, this is supposed to represent a CORE belief
for this church, that we obey the law. In the U.S., if the Supreme Court
upholds a law, that is basically the end all of any discussion, if they say it
is “constitutional”, there is no more argument. But the leaders of the church
blow it off, and keep on going.
One of the anti-polygamy laws
permitted the U.S. government to seize Church property. Federal officers soon
threatened to take Latter-day Saint temples. The work of salvation for both the
living and the dead was now in jeopardy. In September 1890, Church President
Wilford Woodruff felt inspired to issue the Manifesto. “Inasmuch as laws have been enacted by Congress
forbidding plural marriages,” President Woodruff explained, “I hereby declare
my intention to submit to those laws, and to use my influence with the members
of the Church over which I preside to have them do likewise.”8
The footnote 8 references Official Declaration 1. Nuts and bolts version of this
“Declaration;” “I, therefore, as
President of The Church of Jesus Christ of Latter-day Saints, do hereby, in the
most solemn manner, declare that these charges are false. We are not teaching
polygamy or plural marriage, nor permitting any person to enter into its
practice, and I deny that either forty or any other number of plural marriages
have during that period been solemnized in our Temples or in any other place in
the Territory.”
He also makes sure to specify
that he intends to follow those laws (as is mentioned in the essay itself). But
I think that this is the part that I find most interesting, right at the end of
Woodruff’s portion; “There is nothing in
my teachings to the Church or in those of my associates, during the time
specified, which can be reasonably construed to inculcate or encourage
polygamy; and when any Elder of the Church has used language which appeared to
convey any such teaching, he has been promptly reproved.” There is a few
key words right there, “during the time specified.” This “time specified refers
specifically to “Last June, or during the past year,” being the year prior to
Oct 6th, 1890. It says nothing prior to that point (Oct 1889), only
since that time.
The full implications of the
document were not apparent at first. The Lord’s way is to speak “line upon
line; here a little, there a little.”9 Like the beginning of plural
marriage in the Church, the end of the practice was gradual and incremental, a
process filled with difficulties and uncertainties.
OK, footnote 9 lists a handful
of different scriptures: Isaiah
28:10, 13; 2 Nephi 28:30; Doctrine and Covenants 98:12. They all
basically hit the same thing, that God gives information bit by bit. But I
don’t see how that fits in this case. I can understand the fact that maybe
there was some “line upon line” action with the start of polygamy, but that is
not the same situation we have here. There is one issue here, stopping. It is
not the same issue we find with the word of wisdom that was an addiction
principle, that forcing every leader of the church to stop drinking/chewing at
the same time would not work (even Joseph Smith was drinking while he was in Carthage Jail). This
is something that can be stopped “cold turkey” as it were. You just stopped
marrying guys to multiple wives, right then, done. But even here in the next
paragraph of the Essay we find that this was not the case.
The Manifesto declared President
Woodruff’s intention to submit to the laws of the United States, and new plural
marriages within that jurisdiction largely came to an end. But a small number
of plural marriages continued to be performed in Mexico and Canada, under the
sanction of some Church leaders. As a rule, these marriages were not promoted
by Church leaders and were difficult to get approved. Either one or both of the
spouses who entered into these unions typically had to agree to remain in
Canada or Mexico. On an exceptional basis, a smaller number of plural marriages
were performed within the United States between the years 1890 and 1904.
The message President Woodruff
gives in the 1st declaration does not sit well with me after reading the church
essay. For example, President Woodruff states, "We are not teaching
polygamy or plural marriage, nor permitting any person to enter into its
practice."
Then why in the essay does it
state, "The Manifesto declared President Woodruff’s intention to submit to
the laws of the United States, and new plural marriages within that
jurisdiction largely came to an end. But a small number of plural marriages
continued to be performed in Mexico and Canada, under the sanction of some
Church leaders." The essay admits that plural marriage continued after the
issuance of Official Declaration 1, it just says that they only did it in
Canada and Mexico, away from the U.S. Government. This makes it seem that they
had no intention to stop this practice. The only thing that made them was the
threat of losing the temple. If not for that fact, would the “revelation” that
became Declaration 1 ever have actually taken place? This is all just too fishy
for me, the timing aspect of this “revelation” happening just after the laws
are passed and the U.S. Government looking into going after the church as a
whole instead of individual members. Yet they continued to practice in Canada
and Mexico! So what was stated in Official Declaration 1 is bogus! He didn’t do
it over the “members of the Church which” he presides over, only those in the
U.S. and not outside those boundaries. It should be noted, the practice of polygamy
was illegal in Mexico this entire time as well,
only their government wasn’t threatening to take away the temple for it.
The Church’s role in these
marriages became a subject of intense public debate after Reed Smoot, an
Apostle, was elected to the U.S. Senate in 1903. At the April 1904 general
conference, Church President Joseph F. Smith issued a forceful statement, known
as the Second Manifesto, making new plural marriages punishable by
excommunication.10 Since President Smith’s day, Church Presidents
have repeatedly emphasized that the Church and its members are no longer
authorized to enter into plural marriage and have underscored the sincerity of
their words by urging local leaders to bring noncompliant members before Church
disciplinary councils.
So wait, we had to
have another “Manifesto”? The first one was worded so that it should leave no
question, the church was against pleural marriages. Then again, that magically
only included those taking place in the U.S. territory, it even says so here in
the Essay. OK, let’s look at #2.
Footnote 10 references
(but no link is provided) the second manifesto. OK, this one took me a while to
find. Thanks to Google, a lot of time, and some key word tweaking, I finally
found a copy of the “Improvement Era” that
originally published it in May of 1904. Here we go:
"Official
Statement by President Joseph F. Smith.
Inasmuch as
there are numerous reports in circulation that plural marriages have been
entered into, contrary to the official declaration of President Woodruff of
September 24, 1890, commonly called the manifesto, which was issued by
President Woodruff, and adopted by the Church at its general conference,
October 6, 1890, which forbade any marriages violative of the law of the land,
I Joseph F Smith, President of the Church of Jesus Christ of Latter-day Saints,
hereby affirm and declare that no such marriages have been solemnized with the
sanction, consent or knowledge of the Church of Jesus Christ of Latter-day
Saints
And I hereby
announce that all such marriages are prohibited, and if any officer or member
of the Church shall assume to solemnize or enter into any such marriage, he
will be deemed in transgression against the Church, and will be liable to be
dealt with according to the rules and regulations thereof and excommunicated
therefrom.
Joseph F. Smith
President"
Long story short, the
first manifesto didn't do the trick. So finally, after 14 years of practicing
plural marriage after the Manifesto, it was finally banned by the church in
1904. I find it very interesting that they had to finally use such strong
wording as they did here in this statement by Joseph F. Another quick question
comes up, why is it that Manifesto is found very easily in the D&C, why not
also have this in the D&C? Why is it that this was only printed in the
Improvement Era, or in the Deseret News? Probably because the church didn’t
want to admit that they had members still practicing for a lot longer than
“legally allowed”. This is evident even when President Joseph F Smith himself
testified under oath to the US Senate ion March 1904 that he "… had
cohabited with his wives and fathered children with them since 1890."
It's easier to feel
more separated from the times of polygamy to say, "Oh, polygamy was a
church practice back in the 19th century …that's so long ago!" than it is
to admit that the church continued to practice it into the 20th century, barely
yes; but that has always been a marketing practice, the same as why so many
things cost X-dollars, and 99-cents.
If you would like to learn more
about the end of plural marriage in the Church, click here.
Conclusion
Plural marriage was among the
most challenging aspects of the Restoration. For many who practiced it, plural
marriage was a trial of faith. It violated both cultural and legal norms,
leading to persecution and revilement. Despite these hardships, plural marriage
benefited the Church in innumerable ways. Through the lineage of these
19th-century Saints have come many Latter-day Saints who have been faithful to
their gospel covenants as righteous mothers and fathers; loyal disciples of
Jesus Christ; devoted Church members, leaders, and missionaries; and good
citizens and prominent public officials. Modern Latter-day Saints honor and
respect these faithful pioneers who gave so much for their faith, families, and
community.
You know what, I’m going to just
let it end there as well. Bottom line: The Church did practice it, as we have
seen this occurred prior to the revelation in D&C 132, and continued for
another 14 years after the Manifesto. This alone should stand as to an issue with
how the church has always handled this particular part of its history.
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